A follow-up to my question over on the Law stack A draft agreement I'm reviewing writes to say
The lessor shall have, in the event of the lessee's breach of
or default under this agreement and/or the lessor being of
the view that the lessee is not cooperating and/or not
complying with the terms and conditions of this Agreement, a
right to terminate this Agreement and the licence granted
hereunder, after issuing to the lessee a prior written notice
of not less than 3(three) months by registered post, or speed
post (and also by (i) email where email id of the lessee is
available; and (ii) SMS and/or whatsapp where the mobile
phone number of the lessee is available)
The answers received on the Law Stack indicate that as long as the mode/s of communication constitute/s part of the agreement, the communication is legal.
I'm trying to convince my opposite number that - unlike Whatsapp/Signal - SMS is not connection oriented. A text message may fail. A text message may fail silently. A text message may fail in whole, or even in part. My counterpart is even less of a geek/nerd ( I forget which is the good type :p ) than I. Convincing her that an RFC -a collaborative document - establishes protocol for how SMS work is - so far - without success. The wikipedia article - similarly collaborative - same problem.
How does an RFC work to become an official 'protocol'? Where is this documented authoritatively, and who is the change control authority?